Debate over John 1:1 and John 14:28

Here are a couple of interesting links for future reference:

Trinity and Modern Arians

BUT THE GREEK TEXT HAS FOUR DEFINITE ARTICLES (Strongs # 3588)
1722 746 2258 3588 3056 2532 3588 3056 2258
In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was
4314 3588 2316 2532 2316 2258 3588 3056
with THE God, and God was the Word

It doesn't take a Greek scholar to compare these verses and see that the translators have intentionally left out one definite article.

Your comment that "The Word was with THE God or the Word was WITH God -- no difference, Harold." is simply an evasion of the fact that John made a difference between them. The definite article is used to distinguish between persons or things. That is why John used it, to distinguish between Jesus (theos - God) and His Father (ho theos - The God)

The Ante-Nicene Fathers and the Holy Trinity

"ORIGEN (C. 253) is free from all ambiguity..."I admit", he says "that there may be some.....(sic) who maintain that the Saviour is the Most High God over all, but we do NOT certainly hold such a view, who believe Him when He said Himself: "THE FATHER WHO SENT ME IS GREATER THAN I"; and again: "Clearly we assert.....(sic) that the Son is not mightier than the Father, but INFERIOR."